Sign In
  • Question

    First question: Why does a contract transfer modification from a FFP contract to another FFP contract make it Government-owned? It seems like RMS is shooting themselves in the foot because now if an asset is lost or excess, we have to report it to DCMA rather then go the easier route of decrementing it from our records upon signed scrap warranty or obtaining an impact statement from a Program for the lost asset. Second question: Did RMS come up with this transfer of ownership or is it written somewhere in the FAR? If this is an RMS process, then we should be able to change it. If it is a DCMA process, then why would the Government want identified property that originally was RMS-owned. I just want to know the reason behind this ownership transfer so that it makes sense to me. Thank you, Dawn Avelenda


    Please verify ownership of the property with your Government representative, so there is no confusion regarding the title. FAR 52.245-1 provides guidance for "Contractor Acquired" property to transfer to another contract as Government Furnished property, because the contractor is reimbursed for the acquisition.

    Open full Question Details